Hi guy, looking for some advice.
I have a flat I'm considering letting out. It's a nice flat and should hopefully attract a rate which would just cover my mortgage payments; in other words I won't be making any profit from the venture.
My only problem is with the deeds to the flat...
I purchased the flat in a regeneration area. The local authority for the area were looking to attract private house buyers and particularly first time buyers (like me!) to build a community atmosphere. In order to prevent 'transient' buyers it was written into the deeds that the property could not be let out.
The world has obviously changed a whole lot in the intervening period. This clause was written in boom times, and is becoming increasingly difficult to uphold in these harder times. A number of my neighbours are renting their flats out, there are to let signs everywhere and their deeds will match mine.
I'm thinking of approaching my mortgage company asking consent to let. However, not sure if they will check the deeds before giving consent. Is this part of standard procedure? Should I expect a no straight off? How practical is this clause to uphold? And what other options do I have, if any?
Thanks in advance!
I have a flat I'm considering letting out. It's a nice flat and should hopefully attract a rate which would just cover my mortgage payments; in other words I won't be making any profit from the venture.
My only problem is with the deeds to the flat...
I purchased the flat in a regeneration area. The local authority for the area were looking to attract private house buyers and particularly first time buyers (like me!) to build a community atmosphere. In order to prevent 'transient' buyers it was written into the deeds that the property could not be let out.
The world has obviously changed a whole lot in the intervening period. This clause was written in boom times, and is becoming increasingly difficult to uphold in these harder times. A number of my neighbours are renting their flats out, there are to let signs everywhere and their deeds will match mine.
I'm thinking of approaching my mortgage company asking consent to let. However, not sure if they will check the deeds before giving consent. Is this part of standard procedure? Should I expect a no straight off? How practical is this clause to uphold? And what other options do I have, if any?
Thanks in advance!