Hi all,
I have read somewhere that a tenant in common agreement is pointless for a married couple as effectively when divorcing the law ensures the split is 50:50, and this would mean one partner would still be entitled to the half of the asset (larger share in the property).
Is this true, or not?
Thanks
Maddie
I have read somewhere that a tenant in common agreement is pointless for a married couple as effectively when divorcing the law ensures the split is 50:50, and this would mean one partner would still be entitled to the half of the asset (larger share in the property).
Is this true, or not?
Thanks
Maddie