My husband and myself are looking to buy a house, but are concerned with his past history:
1. 2005, Default of £6k, reduced to £3,700 but not paid off (stupidly following advice of debt advice charity in about 2009 after they failed to be able to provide statements/copy of agreement)
2. 2009, Default of £380, settled 2010
3. 2009, 1 Late credit card payment
The thing is, we have checked Call Credit (Noddle), Experian and Equifax reports. Experian/Equifax show 3., Noddle ONLY shows 2. and none of them show 1.
For the record, we intend to pay off 1.
Is it true that banks only use specific reports so should a bank only use Experian, his record would show a late payment only? Could debt 1. raise its ugly head and reappear on any records?
1. 2005, Default of £6k, reduced to £3,700 but not paid off (stupidly following advice of debt advice charity in about 2009 after they failed to be able to provide statements/copy of agreement)
2. 2009, Default of £380, settled 2010
3. 2009, 1 Late credit card payment
The thing is, we have checked Call Credit (Noddle), Experian and Equifax reports. Experian/Equifax show 3., Noddle ONLY shows 2. and none of them show 1.
For the record, we intend to pay off 1.
Is it true that banks only use specific reports so should a bank only use Experian, his record would show a late payment only? Could debt 1. raise its ugly head and reappear on any records?